DC Servo using the OPA1656 CMOS Opamp

I like Marcel's circuit plenty, well filtered and a belt'n'suspenders approach. I guess the biggest question is why the TLO7x? It's hardly what anyone would call a precision opamp for the location. Is it the PDIP factor? (blah, SO is easy) I can't imagine it's cost as jumping up even $1/channel is not changing anyone's BOM substantially.

Edit -- looks like the interest is around rail-to-rail input?

E.g. there's the OP07C in PDIP.
The TL071 is fine for the application. FET inputs make it ideal for integrator use and the offsets are low enough for power amp use.
 
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It's a matter of preference, but I wouldn't want to design a DC servo such that a large subsonic input signal can clip the op-amp and cause offset if the clipping is asymmetrical.
Agree. There are several trade-offs involved in the design of a DC servo. In my designs, I first ensure that the servo can correct the maximum expected amplifier offset while the amplifier is outputting a full-scale signal at the lowest expected frequency. I prefer that the servo's closed loop bandwidth be ~0.2 Hz. This is a design choice. If these requirements can be met while also accommodating some input offset, without undesirable noise or distortion injection, so much the better. To address your concern, I monitor the servo's output voltage and disconnect the speaker if it is nearing the opamp's limits.
 
Hello Marcel

There is no frequency aberration.
I think the trick is the very large ratio of your R6 to R2//R7 and the fact that R6C3 >> (R2//R7) C2. As a result, there is almost no difference between the pole that C2 causes in the loop gain and the zero it causes in the transfer, so you get a near perfect cancellation.

Edit: sorry, this is complete nonsense. I thought the pole couldn't move much with feedback because of the zero right next to it, but that is wrong because it's not a zero in the loop gain.
 
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I use an instrumentation amplifier architecture for my power amplifiers, so I have implemented the DC servos like this:

1659214172332.png
 
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I think the trick is the very large ratio of your R6 to R2//R7 and the fact that R6C3 >> (R2//R7) C2. As a result, there is almost no difference between the pole that C2 causes in the loop gain and the zero it causes in the transfer, so you get a near perfect cancellation.

Edit: sorry, this is complete nonsense. I thought the pole couldn't move much with feedback because of the zero right next to it, but that is wrong because it's not a zero in the loop gain.
It's this in combination with the fact that the pole that C2 causes kicks in at a frequency well above the DC loop bandwidth, where the DC loop has practically no loop gain left, so the pole doesn't shift much after all.
 
There is no performance difference between any operational amplifier and DC server circuit.
It's not worth wasting time.
Absolutely incorrect.
In example, cutoff frequency of discussed inverting LPF circuit is determined by impedance in parallel with C2. So, internal op-amp input to output impedance affects desired low pass frequency, which can’t be precisely calculated, rather estimated or measured.
 

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1k for Rf and between 22 to 33 for Rg
I've run it through a pole-zero extraction program assuming Rg = 27 ohm. It finds a zero at -1012.13 rad/s, as expected, and a closed-loop pole at -1012.15 rad/s, resulting in a loss of bass of less than 0.0002 dB. No wonder you didn't see any aberration!

Much to my surprise, it reported the pole to be at -1012.15 rad/s both in open loop and in closed loop. Looking at the root locus and zooming in a lot, I see that it does shift to the left when the loop is closed, but by such a small amount that the value rounded to six digits remains the same.

I started to understand that when I looked at the loop gain. Thanks to the filtering effect of both the integrator and the input capacitor, the loop gain drops with a second-order slope and is of the order of 1.1*10-6 at the frequency where the third pole kicks in.

Thanks, it has been very interesting!
 
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Absolutely incorrect.
In example, cutoff frequency of discussed inverting LPF circuit is determined by impedance in parallel with C2. So, internal op-amp input to output impedance affects desired low pass frequency, which can’t be precisely calculated, rather estimated or measured.
Is it? I have never found such an effect in measurement.
Don't guess. You only need to take a few minutes to measure once.
I am on e405 mod (L9 circuit)
Use njm4580, ne5532, tl072, ad8620.
The frequency response is completely coincident. There is no difference.
 

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After 30 years ago after Twenty years ago after ten years ago,sold i different opamp buy by importer ,not by Ali

At least in the DC server circuit. Njm 4580 is very good.
Don't waste money buying any operational amplifiers. meaningless.
They have the same frequency response. Distortion is the same.
My operational amplifier comes from Ti BB ns company as a gift.
I have almost all operational amplifiers. There is no practical difference between them.
 

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