-290 dB Distortion?

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Would this be a good time to say that if someone says he can measure to -290dB then we may doubt him? I might take it seriously if someone from CERN or LIGO made such a claim, but almost everyone else (whatever their guru status) has to provide proof.

I don't care if you come from CERN or LIGO, -290 dB needs proof. I'll happily read the paper(s) of such feats when they come to publication, though. :) That's generally the nice thing about folks who are deep into this field -- they don't make the claims explicitly without showing their methodology.

Heck, -160 needs proof, as that's enough beyond all the big players respective systems.
 
Why did you divide the result in your sim?
I would like to answer your question, but I don’t understand. What result has been divided.
Also could you explain how this noise measurement can help me?
As mentioned before, EC cannot cancel its own noise. Doing this should give exactly the same noise spectra for both versions, with and without 10 Ohm, if not, the EC it is not maximally tuned. The second reason is that you get your information at what level the noise of your 100 Watt Amp will be and thereby the theoretical measuring limit for the THD for a given bin width, still completely neglecting things like the own THD of the EC, etc, etc.

Hans
 
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But the non-linearity of the feedback network is not amplified by the noise gain. After reading some of the comments in the QA401 thread I'm convinced any attempts to measure brute force THD are doomed in the end to be dominated by A/D artifacts due to the presence of the full scale fundamental frequency signal. Some nulling or notching of the fundamental is the only way.

Richard Marsh showed a QA401 plot with the fundamental notched out. I meant to ask him how he did it because I don’t see that option on the QA menu.
 
Richard Marsh showed a QA401 plot with the fundamental notched out. I meant to ask him how he did it because I don’t see that option on the QA menu.

Richard Marsh showed many outlandish measurement results over time, and never provided a full disclosure on how these results were obtained. Among these, his Panasonic VP-7722A ability to measure under -140dB THD (the instrument display limit) @1KHz using the internal DSP to extract the harmonic components from noise, with otherwise no obvious special setup. I have two of those Panasonic babies and never got under some -128dB (-112dB THD+N) with the same instrument settings. The 12dB gap (x4 times) is no small potatoes at these levels. My Rohde&Schwarz UPD analyzer with the B1 low distortion generator option is also limited to some -128dB THD (-114dB THD+N) over the internal loop. So I would take Richards claims with a bit of salt, until independently confirmed.

From where I sit, even with the noise gain technique, anything under -160dB needs a full setup description and independent confirmation to be trusted.
 
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I would like to answer your question, but I don’t understand. What result has been divided.
761431d1559894241-290-db-distortion-290-4-png

The results are divided by 8.87 and 10 respectively as shown at the top of the graph. What is the reasoning?

Also do you know how to remove the noise floor in the FTT? I could show some more useful figures if it wasn't in the way. I don't know how you made FTTs look like you showed before.
 
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"Richard Marsh showed many outlandish measurement results over time, and never provided a full disclosure on how these results were obtained."

It was a picture of his screen Syn08 - the fundamental was removed. I don't know whether he had some other gear in series with the QA401 - I just need to ask him.

Cant comment on the other stuff - I honestly don't know.
 
It was a picture of his screen Syn08 - the fundamental was removed. I don't know whether he had some other gear in series with the QA401 - I just need to ask him.

That's exactly the problem, nobody really knows how he got these and other results. Another example:

I can measure directly down to -160 with my gear.

Claiming is cheap, substantiating claims not so much...
 
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So, I have a question. Why do dBr measurements have a much lower noise floor than dbV measurements? What is the effective difference between dBr and dBV?

Its a different reference. dBV is referred to 1V, while dBr is to whatever is set as reference.

Example. You measure 1uV, that is -120dbV right. If I set the reference to 100mV, that 1uV is -100dBr.

dBr is often used with different fundamental levels while wanting to keep the result comparable. Although you sometimes also see dBc which is referred to the 'carrier' which normally is the fundamental.

Jan
 
If you are not going to be constructive please don't respond.

The point is, you are obviously lacking basic knowledge. How are you expecting to be taken seriously by your peers and potential investors?

So far, you contributions were occasionally entertaining (although not in a positive sense) but as soon as the fun is over (and it is about to) the naked truth will appear in full light: you are a clueless wannabe that doesn't even care to use Google.
 
hellokitty123 said:
Why do dBr measurements have a much lower noise floor than dbV measurements?
What is the effective difference between dBr and dBV?
Have you ever come across Wikipedia? I had never heard of dBr, and it turns out it just means dB i.e. relative to something. dBV, as I am sure you know, is dB relative to 1V. So one is a ratio and the other is a voltage. Does that help?
 
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The point is, you are obviously lacking basic knowledge. How are you expecting to be taken seriously by your peers and potential investors?

So far, you contributions were occasionally entertaining (although not in a positive sense) but as soon as the fun is over (and it is about to) the naked truth will appear in full light: you are a clueless wannabe that doesn't even care to use Google.

He is aware of the gaps in his understanding, asks questions and clarifications and wants to learn. We should be glad with a member like that, the first one I meet in over a decade here.

Jan
 
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