is there a difference?

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There is plenty in the literature about non standard tuning.

Have you never come across "The well tempered clavier" and the efforts of JS Bach?

It didn't all start with geetars and "songs!"

There are reports of Brahms (IIRC) travelling to a different town and having to transpose one of his works (on the fly in his head) up by a full tone because the piano was so out of tune. But he WAS a genius.

Piano tuning is always a compromise.
 
I disagree. Currently it seems we use a perfect 440Hz (A) as a reference base for tuning. Without anyway to perfectly measure cycles I don't think there was an objective reference to base tuning forks or really anything on.

The truth is that relative tuning is infinitely more important than using some perfect reference note/tone. You can be a fraction of the way in between C and Csharp and as long as all the other instruments and musicians comform it will sound great.

To my ears the measurably perfect references might be making musicians lazy and not tuning with there ears. Adding a sort of plastic sound to the music similar to what quantizing drums does to a beat.
 
'not political?

In the 17th/18th centuaries when all this was evolving, Germany did not exist, The Russian, French, A&H empires and England did not sing to a common tune - and you guys over there were still up to your ***** in Aligators :D

"Until the 19th century there was no concerted effort to standardize musical pitch, and the levels across Europe varied widely. Pitches did not just vary from place to place, or over time—pitch levels could vary even within the same city. The pitch used for an English cathedral organ in the 17th century, for example, could be as much as five semitones lower than that used for a domestic keyboard instrument in the same city."

Wiki quote
 
I think that the overall result 8 TRUE of 10 is a good starting point to consider this test worth of attention

No, it's not. There were no meaningful controls and about a million ways the subject could be cued. It's certainly possible to structure a test, but not the way they did it. Unlike the piano tuners (an excellent example of the sorts of things the ear can be trained for), they're making a claim that violates fundamental physics, so the standards of evidence need to be slightly better than "almost no control."

For the sake of precison I would like to point out that the phrase reported above:
"I think that the overall result 8 TRUE of 10 is a good starting point to consider this test worth of attention"
is Marco Amboldi's opinion (the guy who edit the paper) - not mine (I simply translated the paper)

I have two more questions:

- beside the lack of control is it the 8 true of 10 result statistically meaningful?

- what kind of controls and protocols are suggested to get a meaningful results?

Thanks
 
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