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Is neutrality really the same as accuracy?

Posted 11th October 2015 at 07:41 PM by cspirou

One thing I hear from objective audiophiles is that amps should strive to be as neutral as possible because you should only hear what the record producer intended for you to hear.

Philosophically I do agree that I should hear what the artist meant for me to hear. However how do you know that the album was recorded while listening to a similarly neutral amp? Recording to a master tape usually doesn't include the amp powering the monitors so whatever they heard through their amp and speakers isn't captured on the tape. In order to really hear what was in the studio, you would need the same amp and the same set to speakers to listen to what they listened to. So if my home setup has a miracle amp and speaker that truly is ruler flat from 1hz-1MHz and 0.00001% THD, I probably still am hearing things differently then the artist because they probably used an average monitor that has -10db at 30Hz.

So how important is it really that an amp be neutral?
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  1. Old Comment
    abraxalito's Avatar
    It remains to be demonstrated that simply measuring 0.0001% THD+N and ruler flatness in FR means an amp is 'neutral'. The onus is on the claimant to show that it is, I'm skeptical myself.
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    Posted 12th October 2015 at 12:06 AM by abraxalito abraxalito is offline
 

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