This is doubtlessly a very basic question, so I ask it humbly: Why do amplifiers tend to create less distortion into higher-impedence speaker loads?
I have never heard a concise answer to this, and I am terribly curious.
Am I right in assuming this rule applies, in varying degrees, to all amps?
Does it have to do with the fact that, because amps are voltage-driven devices, a wider voltage swing equals a lower noise floor, all else being the same?
Are there other advantages to an amp whose power output is predominantly voltage?
For helping me grasp this basic concept, I thank you.
Bill
I have never heard a concise answer to this, and I am terribly curious.
Am I right in assuming this rule applies, in varying degrees, to all amps?
Does it have to do with the fact that, because amps are voltage-driven devices, a wider voltage swing equals a lower noise floor, all else being the same?
Are there other advantages to an amp whose power output is predominantly voltage?
For helping me grasp this basic concept, I thank you.
Bill