I understand that the output impedance of v1, say, and the input impedance of v2 form a potential divider. However, I keep reading about the effects of impedance bridging ratios on frequency response, but I've been unable to find an explanation of exactly what goes on as the ratio shifts from 1 to 1 to the sometimes recommended minimum of 1 to 5 to the more commonly expressed 1 to 10. I read that it affects the frequency response, but how?
I'm trying to design an instrument amp that has a very minimal phase shift in the guitar frequency band. I'd like to be able to approximate a gentle high cut and low cut by some other means than RC filtering, mostly because of my allergy to phase shifts. It seems like this impedance bridging ratio could help.
One reason I believe this is because I've used a very nice tube DI made by Manley that switches impedances to do just this.
Anybody?
I'm trying to design an instrument amp that has a very minimal phase shift in the guitar frequency band. I'd like to be able to approximate a gentle high cut and low cut by some other means than RC filtering, mostly because of my allergy to phase shifts. It seems like this impedance bridging ratio could help.
One reason I believe this is because I've used a very nice tube DI made by Manley that switches impedances to do just this.
Anybody?