If memory serves, no, it will depend on the listener (in his tests, some were more sensitive to the effect than others) and the test signal. But it's not unexpected- a speaker with high second has a suspension that is non-symmetric around the rest position. For example, if you put a positive voltage across it that causes the cone to move 1 cm forward, the opposite polarity might cause it to move 0.9cm backward. That's what causes absolute polarity to be audible on music program.
)?Most recordings have all instruments recorded in the same polarity except for those with the artistic choice of using the Phil Spector "Wall of Sound" or reverse "Wall of Sound" that I'm not big on but that's not my call. For digital material, if one uses the list at The Polarity List | UltraBitPlatinum.com and determines which connection of their speakers makes all tracks on approximately 92% of CD play in absolute polarity approximately 92% of the time, then that's the way to leave the speakers connected.
George S. Louis
George S. Louis
How could this possibly be true?
I just received a pro-audi equipment catalog with 46 pages of microphones. Are all these microphones tested for absolute polarity? What about bi-polar ribbon microphones, how do you test them? Many mic-preamps have polarity invert switches, how do you police them? In close miced recordings, why would the engineer be concerned about mic polarity if the instruments sound fields don't overlap?
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It would seem from recent changes to the OPer's linked site that someone (perhaps not far from a sanitorium) may be taking the pi$$. In case he changes it again, here is what it says today: "Home of the Acoustic Wormhole™ where one can astral travel back through time and space where High Fidelity Holograms™ that seem to come alive are the rule not the exception! All Products Are Made In The USA"
OK. It's a load of old hogs.
Oh: Disclaimer: The ideas expressed herein are the opinions of the author and therefore their value and truth should be determined by the readers for themselves.
OK. It's a load of old hogs.
Oh: Disclaimer: The ideas expressed herein are the opinions of the author and therefore their value and truth should be determined by the readers for themselves.
If that was true, that would mean that the cone moves +/-0.95cm around 0.05cm static position instead of +/-1cm around 0.00cm. It would be like a small DC component applied on the coil and some gain reduction. I don't think that is audible.
As for inverted VS non-inverted... the signal that is reproduced by the speaker/headphones needs to be inverted to the one that was recorded by the microphone. So the 92% of industry that OP talks about as being "wrong" is actually correct.
Why is that? Well, if you push the micropohone inward with a sound wave, that sound wave would push the eardrum (in the same location) inward too.
For a speaker to produce the same effect on a listener eardrum (pushing inward), it would have to move the speaker/headphone cone outward, to create that pressure gradient that will move our ear inward.
The reproduction, seen on an ossciloscope, would have to be "inverted" because of physics difference between source/receptor of pressure waves.
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no, what SY is describing is an asymmetric nonlinearity and it can't be modelled as DC offset.
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