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Old 19th February 2012, 11:28 AM   #21
SY is offline SY  United States
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If memory serves, no, it will depend on the listener (in his tests, some were more sensitive to the effect than others) and the test signal. But it's not unexpected- a speaker with high second has a suspension that is non-symmetric around the rest position. For example, if you put a positive voltage across it that causes the cone to move 1 cm forward, the opposite polarity might cause it to move 0.9cm backward. That's what causes absolute polarity to be audible on music program.
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Old 19th February 2012, 11:51 AM   #22
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that makes a lot of sense. am I right in expecting it to be prevalent in low sensitivity speakers then (like mine for instance )?
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Old 20th February 2012, 03:03 AM   #23
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Most recordings have all instruments recorded in the same polarity except for those with the artistic choice of using the Phil Spector "Wall of Sound" or reverse "Wall of Sound" that I'm not big on but that's not my call. For digital material, if one uses the list at The Polarity List | UltraBitPlatinum.com and determines which connection of their speakers makes all tracks on approximately 92% of CD play in absolute polarity approximately 92% of the time, then that's the way to leave the speakers connected.

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Old 20th February 2012, 02:21 PM   #24
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Originally Posted by georgelouis View Post
Most recordings have all instruments recorded in the same polarity except for those with the artistic choice .............
George S. Louis
How could this possibly be true?
I just received a pro-audi equipment catalog with 46 pages of microphones. Are all these microphones tested for absolute polarity? What about bi-polar ribbon microphones, how do you test them? Many mic-preamps have polarity invert switches, how do you police them? In close miced recordings, why would the engineer be concerned about mic polarity if the instruments sound fields don't overlap?
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Old 20th February 2012, 09:03 PM   #25
benb is offline benb  United States
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I've seen a pic of the Beatles in the recording studio showing John and Paul singing on opposite sides of a (ribbon? Surely figure-8 pattern, regardless) mic. Which Beatle's voice was recorded in reverse polarity?

"Turn us on, reverse man."
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Old 8th March 2012, 12:25 AM   #26
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It would seem from recent changes to the OPer's linked site that someone (perhaps not far from a sanitorium) may be taking the pi$$. In case he changes it again, here is what it says today: "Home of the Acoustic Wormhole™ where one can astral travel back through time and space where High Fidelity Holograms™ that seem to come alive are the rule not the exception! All Products Are Made In The USA"

OK. It's a load of old hogs.

Oh: Disclaimer: The ideas expressed herein are the opinions of the author and therefore their value and truth should be determined by the readers for themselves.
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Old 8th March 2012, 12:35 AM   #27
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Originally Posted by SY View Post
For example, if you put a positive voltage across it that causes the cone to move 1 cm forward, the opposite polarity might cause it to move 0.9cm backward. That's what causes absolute polarity to be audible on music program.
If that was true, that would mean that the cone moves +/-0.95cm around 0.05cm static position instead of +/-1cm around 0.00cm. It would be like a small DC component applied on the coil and some gain reduction. I don't think that is audible.

As for inverted VS non-inverted... the signal that is reproduced by the speaker/headphones needs to be inverted to the one that was recorded by the microphone. So the 92% of industry that OP talks about as being "wrong" is actually correct.
Why is that? Well, if you push the micropohone inward with a sound wave, that sound wave would push the eardrum (in the same location) inward too.
For a speaker to produce the same effect on a listener eardrum (pushing inward), it would have to move the speaker/headphone cone outward, to create that pressure gradient that will move our ear inward.
The reproduction, seen on an ossciloscope, would have to be "inverted" because of physics difference between source/receptor of pressure waves.

Last edited by SoNic_real_one; 8th March 2012 at 12:53 AM.
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Old 8th March 2012, 01:00 AM   #28
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Originally Posted by SoNic_real_one View Post
If that was true, that would mean that the cone moves +/-0.95cm around 0.05cm static position instead of +/-1cm around 0.00cm. It would be like a small DC component applied on the coil and some gain reduction. I don't think that is audible.
no, what SY is describing is an asymmetric nonlinearity and it can't be modelled as DC offset.
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