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Old 12th July 2002, 01:39 AM   #1
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Default Crossover question, real newbie

Hi,

I just finished a second amp (originaly intended for bi-amping) but I realised that there woulden't really be any effect in the bi-amping if both amps still amplified all frequencies, wouldn't it?

I'm wondering if it's possible to use the filters in my three-way speakers to filters the signal coming to the amps, as a bi-amping application.

I know it's a real newbie question but I thought you'd be the right guys to ask. Any answers are very welcome.


Best Regards,
Chris
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Old 12th July 2002, 01:51 AM   #2
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This is an article by Rod Elliot all about bi-amping: http://sound.westhost.com/bi-amp.htm
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Old 12th July 2002, 02:29 AM   #3
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To biamp, you'll need to arrange some form of crossover ahead of the amplifiers and deliver the output of the amps directly to the drivers. It's not that difficult to do if all you want is a 6 dB/oct slope, but matters become more interesting as you progess to steeper slopes.
If you're building amps completely from scratch, there's always the option of tailoring the frequency response of the amp itself, but it's a bear to change frequencies later if you have to take the amp apart to get to the caps.

Grey
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Old 12th July 2002, 03:23 AM   #4
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Default Re: Crossover question, real newbie

Quote:
Originally posted by Christian




I'm wondering if it's possible to use the filters in my three-way speakers to filters the signal coming to the amps, as a bi-amping application.


No, it's not possible, because of differences in impedance. Check the thread To Biamp or not to Biamp, that is the question??????? for more info.
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