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 28th May 2007, 01:00 AM #1 impsick   diyAudio Member     Join Date: Dec 2006 Location: Huntington Beach, Ca resistance sorry for the stupid question but i have a feeling even after i get an explanation it will still baffle me. but at the same time might explain alot to why things are done and how like biasing and stuff to me. ok i understand that if you take 2 resisters of the same rsistance and ruin them side by side, parallel, you get a resistance of half the one resister. example say 1.6k + 1.6k would equal 800ohm. i mean thats a given. what gets me is sasy you take that 1.6k with a 100ohm you would get a resistance of 100ohm. why? ok yeah the electrons like the shortest fastest rout but why? or is my meter just a piece? __________________ "Nothing happens for a reason. There are just reasons why things happen." Quote me on that. http://stores.ebay.com/AudioGrade?_rdc=1
 28th May 2007, 01:04 AM #2 Conrad Hoffman   diyAudio Member   Join Date: Mar 2007 Location: Canandaigua, NY USA Actually you should get about 94 ohms, the product over the sum. A good DVM will resolve way better than this, but an inexpensive or analog meter might not.
 28th May 2007, 01:07 AM #3 impsick   diyAudio Member     Join Date: Dec 2006 Location: Huntington Beach, Ca sorry that is what i get 94 ohms. what do you mean product over sum? __________________ "Nothing happens for a reason. There are just reasons why things happen." Quote me on that. http://stores.ebay.com/AudioGrade?_rdc=1
 28th May 2007, 01:16 AM #4 sandyK   diyAudio Member   Join Date: Apr 2007 Location: Sydney Solid State > resistance You multiply the 2 resistor values, then divide by the added values of the 2 resistors. e.g. If you parallel 1Kohm and 10Kohm, you get 10Kohm DIVIDED by 10,000+1,000(11,000) The result is 909 ohms SandyK
 28th May 2007, 03:05 AM #5 CBS240   diyAudio Member     Join Date: Aug 2005 Location: K-town Also Rt=((R1^-1+R2^-1+R3^-1...+Rn^-1)^-1) __________________ All the trouble I've ever been in started out as fun......
 28th May 2007, 06:39 AM #6 impsick   diyAudio Member     Join Date: Dec 2006 Location: Huntington Beach, Ca word. thanks guys. I got it now. __________________ "Nothing happens for a reason. There are just reasons why things happen." Quote me on that. http://stores.ebay.com/AudioGrade?_rdc=1
 28th May 2007, 07:01 AM #7 Nordic   diyAudio Member     Join Date: Sep 2005 Jees !!!!!!!! Easy with the hard math.... for 2 resistors (R1 x R2) / (R1 + R2)
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Join Date: Jan 2006
Location: Avalon Island
Re: resistance

Quote:
 Originally posted by impsick sorry for the stupid question but i have a feeling even after i get an explanation it will still baffle me. but at the same time might explain alot to why things are done and how like biasing and stuff to me. ok i understand that if you take 2 resisters of the same rsistance and ruin them side by side, parallel, you get a resistance of half the one resister. example say 1.6k + 1.6k would equal 800ohm. i mean thats a given. what gets me is sasy you take that 1.6k with a 100ohm you would get a resistance of 100ohm. why? ok yeah the electrons like the shortest fastest rout but why? or is my meter just a piece?

Electricity does not follow the shortest path, or the path of least resistance, but rather all available paths according to their resistance.

a 1.6k resistor allows x current to flow.
Two 1.6k resistors will allow 2 times the current to flow, equol to one resistor of 1/2 the resistance or 800 ohms.

1.6k in parallel with 100 ohms would have the current of the 100 ohm plus the current of the 1.6k resistor, or about equal to one resistor of 94 ohms.

1/R + 1/R +1/R... =1/Total
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