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Old 15th December 2003, 07:42 PM   #1
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Default Confusion on Biamping my B&W

Alright, i have a B&W CC6 center channel,

manual and specs :
http://www.bwspeakers.com/downloadFi...CC6_MANUAL.pdf


Now, it says clearly in the manual that it comes with two sets of studs for "Biwiring / Biamplification if desired". I was under the impression that when you biamped a speaker, you used an external Xover. ( though i'm sure in this case there are passive filter components internally)

My question is : if i were to hook a stereo gainclone up to this single speaker, and run one channel to each of the sets of studs.....what would happen? The gainclone needs 8ohm min. load, right? Wouldn't one of the channels ( i assume the woofer side) have way more impedance than the tweeter?

i'm pretty confused by this,...can someone shed some light?

thx in advance
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Old 15th December 2003, 08:33 PM   #2
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i realize that if the two channels were controlled by the same stereo volume pot, then one of the two channels would most likely be way louder than the other, correct? Or is this something that is thought out before they go telling you its bi-amplification ready and the crossover is designed to give an equal impedance on both sets of studs?

*pulls out hair*
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Old 15th December 2003, 09:22 PM   #3
sreten is offline sreten  United Kingdom
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Bi-Amping is driving the mid/bass and the tweeter with separate
identical gain power amplifiers.

The crossover is arranged such that the two can be drive separately.

The tweeter amplifier sees a high impedance load for bass/mid frequencies
and is consequently far less stressed than the bass/mid amplifier.

Its a poor engineering solution for those with more money than sense.

If you had two gainclones :

Build one to handle much more current than the other, but same
gain and voltage rails. Use the low current version for the tweeter.

Better still high pass filter the treble amp @ ~500Hz first order
and you can use a lower power amplifier, the voltage rails no
longer need to be the same.

sreten.
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Old 17th December 2003, 05:56 PM   #4
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The way it is set up is called passive bi-amping where you use 2 identical amps -- one drives the T & its XO, and the other the rest.

Bi-amping is usually more associated with active bi-amping where there is no passive XO & it is replaced by an active XO in front of the amps... this has much greater potential to sound the best, but when rejigging a speaker with a passive XO you need to make sure that any EQ etc in the passive is somehow dupped in the active.

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Old 17th December 2003, 06:31 PM   #5
sreten is offline sreten  United Kingdom
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Quote:
Bi-amping is usually more associated with active bi-amping where there is no passive XO & it is replaced by an active XO in front of the amps... .
Not for the average man on the street or the reference
to Bi-amplification quoted from the B&W manual.

Hi-Fi dealers do not do active bi-amping, they sell passive,
at least here in the UK, to mugs who don't know any better.

sreten.
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