Biwiring/biamp question..

Dxvideo · 17th October 2007, 06:42 PM

Hi all,

I have a simple and quick question;

I have a pair of Wharfedale Diamond 9.6.. If I use biwiring and also biamping, every channel makes 8 ohm or 16 ohm?

Thx.

Jonathan Bright · 17th October 2007, 08:22 PM

Hi Dxvideo, if you bi-amp or bi-wire the impedence should remain the just the same as the speakers were originally.

audiobomber · 17th October 2007, 08:53 PM

Quote:

Originally posted by Dxvideo
Hi all,

I have a simple and quick question;

I have a pair of Wharfedale Diamond 9.6.. If I use biwiring and also biamping, every channel makes 8 ohm or 16 ohm?

Thx.

Your Wharfedales are a nominal 6 ohm load, so that's what they will be after biamping.

Dxvideo · 18th October 2007, 06:39 AM

No... I mean,
When they were connected via a single cable, the bass/midbass and mid/tweeter channel was paralelled. And when I connect them as biwired then they are nomore paralelled. So the impedance must be decreased. Am I right?

audiobomber · 18th October 2007, 06:48 PM

Quote:

Originally posted by Dxvideo
No... I mean,
When they were connected via a single cable, the bass/midbass and mid/tweeter channel was paralelled. And when I connect them as biwired then they are nomore paralelled. So the impedance must be decreased. Am I right?

No, they're still connected in parallel. You break the parallel connection at the speaker terminals, and you re-make it at the amp (or amps if you're bi-amping). It's the same load.

peter_m · 18th October 2007, 07:29 PM

If you connect two loads on a single amp in parallel ... the resistance is calculated as follows, where your loads are a and b and the total calculated is T

1/a + 1/b = 1/T

according to this, a nominal 6ohm speaker, once the paralle connection is broken and it is powered by two separate amps, the load should be a proximately 12 ohm on each component of the speaker.

audiobomber · 18th October 2007, 08:15 PM

Quote:

Originally posted by peter_m
If you connect two loads on a single amp in parallel ... the resistance is calculated as follows, where your loads are a and b and the total calculated is T

1/a + 1/b = 1/T

according to this, a nominal 6ohm speaker, once the paralle connection is broken and it is powered by two separate amps, the load should be a proximately 12 ohm on each component of the speaker.

If it was DC I could see that, but it's AC, so the impedance at any given frequency will be the same, whether it's biamped or a single amp.

richie00boy · 18th October 2007, 08:30 PM

Quote:

Originally posted by peter_m
If you connect two loads on a single amp in parallel ... the resistance is calculated as follows, where your loads are a and b and the total calculated is T

1/a + 1/b = 1/T

according to this, a nominal 6ohm speaker, once the paralle connection is broken and it is powered by two separate amps, the load should be a proximately 12 ohm on each component of the speaker.

But they are not connected directly in parallel because of the crossover.

The correct answer as Jonathan Bright said is that the impedance remains the same (to all intents and purposes) as it did before the biwiring or passive biamping.

17th October 2007, 06:42 PM	#1
Dxvideo diyAudio Member Join Date: Nov 2003 Location: Turkey	Biwiring/biamp question.. Hi all, I have a simple and quick question; I have a pair of Wharfedale Diamond 9.6.. If I use biwiring and also biamping, every channel makes 8 ohm or 16 ohm? Thx. __________________ Best regards, Ozgur

17th October 2007, 08:22 PM	#2
Jonathan Bright diyAudio Member Join Date: Feb 2004 Location: Queensland	Hi Dxvideo, if you bi-amp or bi-wire the impedence should remain the just the same as the speakers were originally. __________________ "It was the Spring time of the year when aunt calls to aunt like mastodons across the frozen waste." P.G. Wodehouse.

18th October 2007, 06:39 AM	#4
Dxvideo diyAudio Member Join Date: Nov 2003 Location: Turkey	No... I mean, When they were connected via a single cable, the bass/midbass and mid/tweeter channel was paralelled. And when I connect them as biwired then they are nomore paralelled. So the impedance must be decreased. Am I right? __________________ Best regards, Ozgur

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18th October 2007, 07:29 PM	#6
peter_m diyAudio Member Join Date: May 2007	If you connect two loads on a single amp in parallel ... the resistance is calculated as follows, where your loads are a and b and the total calculated is T 1/a + 1/b = 1/T according to this, a nominal 6ohm speaker, once the paralle connection is broken and it is powered by two separate amps, the load should be a proximately 12 ohm on each component of the speaker.

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