Zero hertz - Page 4

Sonusthree · 14th June 2007, 08:30 PM

Quote:

Originally posted by y8s

nah a pendulum of a given length will always swing at the same frequency, regardless of amplitude.

unless of course the amplitude is zero.

high school physics.

I don't remember mentioning amplitude? I referred to altering the frequency of a pendulum.

Svante · 15th June 2007, 11:48 PM

Quote:

Originally posted by darkfenriz
approx. 1003 hPa

Svante · 15th June 2007, 11:58 PM

Actually 0 Hz can be interpreted in many different ways.

One would be like the professor next door to me says: "frequency is the same as 'often-ness'". From that definition, 0 Hz would mean that the event that we study has never happened. Like: At what frequency has God created earths (ok, bad example for religous people

).

Another one would be Fourier analysis. A signal only containing 0 Hz would be a signal that has been and will be forever "on" at a fixed value. Even before big bang, it was on. This is of course not possible.

Yet another way would be to make Fourier analysis of a snippet of a signal (this is the way we usually do it). By doing so we limit the frequency resolution and each frequency bin will have a non-zero width. In this case, the DC of the signal comes out in the 0 Hz bin.

Cal Weldon · 16th June 2007, 12:14 AM

Quote:

Originally posted by Sonusthree
I don't remember mentioning amplitude? I referred to altering the frequency of a pendulum.

If I remember correctly, and I think it's what y8s is referring to, is that as a pendulum reduces it's amplitude, the frequency does not change. In order to change the frequency, you must change the length of the pendulum.

Did I get that right?

MJL21193 · 16th June 2007, 12:39 AM

Quote:

Originally posted by Cal Weldon

In order to change the frequency, you must change the length of the pendulum.

Did I get that right?

Yes.

bear · 16th June 2007, 01:38 AM

The fan works for me. Unidirectional flow = DC = No Hertz at all.

With laminar air flow, if you want to get into it deeper.

Thus, by extrapolation we have those woofers that actually use a fan.

_-_-bear

Hartono · 16th June 2007, 03:59 AM

Hi Bear,

"Thus, by extrapolation we have those woofers that actually use a fan."

you mean THAT woofer ?

I'll go with aircon, much cooler and cheaper.

Hartono

15th June 2007, 11:58 PM	#33
Svante diyAudio Member Join Date: Feb 2004 Location: Stockholm	Actually 0 Hz can be interpreted in many different ways. One would be like the professor next door to me says: "frequency is the same as 'often-ness'". From that definition, 0 Hz would mean that the event that we study has never happened. Like: At what frequency has God created earths (ok, bad example for religous people ). Another one would be Fourier analysis. A signal only containing 0 Hz would be a signal that has been and will be forever "on" at a fixed value. Even before big bang, it was on. This is of course not possible. Yet another way would be to make Fourier analysis of a snippet of a signal (this is the way we usually do it). By doing so we limit the frequency resolution and each frequency bin will have a non-zero width. In this case, the DC of the signal comes out in the 0 Hz bin. __________________ Simulate loudspeakers: Basta! Simulate the baffle step: The Edge

16th June 2007, 01:38 AM	#36
bear expert in tautology diyAudio Member Join Date: Apr 2002 Location: New York State USA	The fan works for me. Unidirectional flow = DC = No Hertz at all. With laminar air flow, if you want to get into it deeper. Thus, by extrapolation we have those woofers that actually use a fan. _-_-bear __________________ _-_-bear http://www.bearlabs.com [...2SJ74 Toshiba bogus asian parts - beware! ] -- Btw, I don't actually know anything, FYI --

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16th June 2007, 03:59 AM	#37
Hartono diyAudio Member Join Date: Nov 2002 Location: currently in China	Hi Bear, "Thus, by extrapolation we have those woofers that actually use a fan." you mean THAT woofer ? I'll go with aircon, much cooler and cheaper. Hartono