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diyAudio Member
Join Date: Sep 2010
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Just wondering on the relative influence of these two modes of propagation at various frequencies. I assume, for example that I could still see bass frequencies as specular, at least up to some point, or maybe that some of the energy is drawn off to become modal and loses its specular behaviour.
This would mean, hypothetically, that if I had a ceiling bounce at around 100Hz, only a portion of the 100Hz energy would be directed in this fashion with the bulk occupying the room in a purely modal way. If this is true, are there some guidelines as to the proportions? |
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